A Problem With The Lockean Thesis (Part III)
[In Part I, I raised a problem for the Lockean Thesis. In Part II, I considered, as well as rejected, a purported resolution of the problem. Here's Part III, in which I explain why the problem arises.]
Consider, once again, the following:
(1) I’m slightly more confident that B than that A, and I believe that A is equivalent to B.
(4) I’m slightly more confident that B than that A, and I’m 95% confident that A is equivalent to B.
Contrary to what one would expect were the Lockean Thesis true, (1) seems infelicitous, whereas (4) seems fine. Where lies the source of this intuition?